Re: Bear Cave 2 (Bull Allowed)
Originally Posted by
Greensboro
Someone much smarter in these things than I please help me here. I'm not an economist so if this is a flawed thought, please forgive me ahead of time. It would seem that the amount of currency available by the public to invest and the number of people investing would be a factor in explaining increased valuations. It seems that given the increase in the number of people investing due to more 401(k) and IRA accounts and the increased amount of currency in circulation would naturally drive valuations higher, especially for those stocks in the most popular index funds (say the S&P 500). So comparison of today's valuations to valuations in the past isn't an apples to apples comparison... Is it? Wouldn't there need to be some kind of adjustment factor?? Curious....
I'm no expert either and fundamental analysis is not my thing, but off the top of my head:
One meaningful, quick and realistic way to compare valuations of the past, or at any time, is to use the PE Ratios (Price-to-Earnings) of the company. This will cancel out the effects of inflation. (It can get more complicated/accurate when you start to take into account the assets/debts of the company, etc.).
Hope this helps
[COLOR=#0000ff][FONT=comic sans ms][I]"In the land of idiots, the moron is King."--Unknown[/I][/FONT][/COLOR]
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