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AIF
09-21-2006, 08:33 AM
….the change in the I Fund share price reported by the TSP does not (always) match the change reported for the Morgan Stanley EAFE …………This process, known as "fair valuation" or "fair value pricing" occurs when there are large U.S. market or currency movements between the time the foreign markets close and 4:00 p.m. eastern time, when BGI's share prices are determined.

Can the process of FV be expanded or explained. Yesterday's rise in the I Fund produced a smaller result to my bottom line than I expected. FV smoothes out the spikes? Why? How is it calculated? I remember reading a post not long ago about other charts that can used to predict I Fund movement that would give us an unfair advantage if we did not have FV.

Squiner
09-28-2006, 08:34 AM
To add to your question, can someone please post a link to the chart that more accurately represents what the I fund will yield? Not this one from yahoo -- http://finance.yahoo.com/q/bc?s=EFA&t=1d